Friday, April 24, 2015

Dear CoWorker

I've always considered myself a reasonably intelligent person, but you have me stumped this time. 

Can you please explain to me how a show based (loosely, I'll admit) on real people who lived and actual historical events which occurred in the 8th century* is "trying to copy" a show based on a work of fiction which was published 1300 years later**?  Especially when those shows aren't that much alike in the first place.

Because, frankly, I'm just not seeing it. 

Oh, and wibbly, wobbly, timey wimey is not a valid explanation. 

Not this time. 

Thank you.

That is all.

*Vikings
**Game Of Thrones

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