I've always considered myself a reasonably intelligent person, but you have me stumped this time.
Can you please explain to me how a show based (loosely, I'll admit) on real people who lived and actual historical events which occurred in the 8th century* is "trying to copy" a show based on a work of fiction which was published 1300 years later**? Especially when those shows aren't that much alike in the first place.
Because, frankly, I'm just not seeing it.
Oh, and wibbly, wobbly, timey wimey is not a valid explanation.
Not this time.
That is all.
**Game Of Thrones